I bought a bike for parts- hadn't been registered since 09 so there's back fees. I don't care about any of this stuff. but I'm just tryin to be a good guy and help him out.
i heard of a story today of a guy who sold a bike to a guy (he sells many bikes), and one of the guys never registered the bike, thus accruing years of back fees (+$300) to the seller- who the dmv thinks is the owner. which would be fine, except that the DMV took the money out of his taxes!! and they won't tell him which bike is the one accrueing fees.
anyways, so this bike... as far as the dmv knows, its a working bike that just behind on fees. i dont think he listed it as non-op or irrepairable. what does he or I have to do in order to formally induce the bike into bike heaven/hell?
BTW, i'm working with CA dmv. so anyone with specific knowledge with the o-so-taxing CADMV would be welcome! plus, i'm down to hear how they do it in your states too.
thanks guys.
i heard of a story today of a guy who sold a bike to a guy (he sells many bikes), and one of the guys never registered the bike, thus accruing years of back fees (+$300) to the seller- who the dmv thinks is the owner. which would be fine, except that the DMV took the money out of his taxes!! and they won't tell him which bike is the one accrueing fees.
anyways, so this bike... as far as the dmv knows, its a working bike that just behind on fees. i dont think he listed it as non-op or irrepairable. what does he or I have to do in order to formally induce the bike into bike heaven/hell?
BTW, i'm working with CA dmv. so anyone with specific knowledge with the o-so-taxing CADMV would be welcome! plus, i'm down to hear how they do it in your states too.
thanks guys.